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by Sir_Substance
2983 days ago
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>there are provisions within the GDPR for it not to apply in those cases where you are not intentionally obtaining data from EU citizens. I read the entire document a few weeks back and recall no such provisions. Could you cite one for me? I'm trying to be as informed on this as possible. Article 3, "Territorial scope", lays out where GDPR applies, and it contains no derogations for "but I didn't know they were european, honest". It is not, in fact, specifically about european citizens. It covers the processing of data for "natural persons in the Union", which is a bit unclear to me but I interpret it as covering anyone physically located in a country that forms a Supervisory Authority under section 51. How this will ultimately interact with your websites and/or businesses if you are not based in the EU is unclear at this time. |
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"The reach of GDPR is broad but is not unlimited. The mere fact that a U.S.-based website can be accessed in the EEA isn’t enough. If the company does not have a physical presence in the EEA, it must be determined whether that company engages in more than incidental contact with EEA residents."
So if someone is going out of their way to mask the fact that they are from the EU, and you aren't otherwise seeking out EU users, you're not going to get in trouble for that. One issue I have with it though is that translation may trigger GDPR exposure, and since Spain is part of the EU, many sites aimed at Spanish speakers (but not aimed at the EU) may have this beast of a law apply to them. I operate a few sites that have Spanish content, so that is deeply troubling.
[1] https://www.gtlaw.com/en/insights/2018/2/the-gdpr-deadline-l...