|
|
|
|
|
by snicker7
2994 days ago
|
|
Despite what the article claims, normality is not actually an assumption of linear regression. It is "required" for doing F-tests (the F-distribution being related to the normal distribution), but it is not required for proving that the regression coefficients are consistent. |
|
> If the error vector in our regression model follows any distribution in the family of Elliptically Symmetric distributions, then any test statistic that is scale-invariant has the same null and alternative distributions as they have when the errors are normally distributed.