[Retric]

I am not arguing that there was zero racial discrimination, we still have forms of racial discrimination built into the law today.

However, at the time women where not allowed to vote at all. Thus it was not pure racial discrimination.

Just for perspective North Carolina and New York did allow freed blacks to vote in 1790. And in 1860 two states still had property ownership requirements to vote I am saying deep cultural views are a more complex topic than you think.

PS: As one historian put it, economics pushed poor white farmers to abolitionism before the civil war. However, economics pushed those same farmers to discrimination after the civil war.