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by millstone 3021 days ago
> If I deposit $100 in a bank, the bank can lend out around $90 to someone else (fractional reserve banking)

This is the textbook explanation which the article strongly rejects. In practice the bank will lend out as much as possible - it is not effectively constrained by reserve requirements since it can and will simply borrow the difference. What constrains it is market forces (the demand for loans, and their profitability), and financial regulations, and finally the interest rates set by the central bank.

If a retail bank believes it can turn a profit by lending money borrowed from the central bank, in compliance with the law, it will do so until it exhausts the opportunity. Consumer deposits are irrelevant.

1 comments

Exactly. There is no reserve limit: any pretense of that was washed away once sweep accounts became standard.

Banks lend as much as they possibly can, and then a bit more, and then expect the taxpayers to pick up the pieces when it all falls apart.

The irony is that there need not be a reserve ratio: if we just adopted duration-matched banking, where a bank had to demonstrate it had ownership of a given dollar it was lending for the duration it loaned that dollar (e.g. via a CD) it would be fine.

This is the fundamental problem with banking, and I don't understand why no one talks about it. Banks are lying about having money they don't have (i.e. they are promising the same dollar to more than one person at the same time). If we forced them to just stop lying it would all work out, and there wouldn't be any need for a reserve ratio.

You do realise that the loans banks take are liabilities, right? Banks are risk averse regardless of whether bailouts exist or not.
> whether bail-outs exist or not

lol