[camelite]

This article [1] states that the nature of the offense doesn't necessarily distinguish civil from criminal fraud, but rather the party pursuing the legal action:

> A single act of fraud can be prosecuted as a criminal fraud by prosecutors, and also as a civil action by the party that was the victim of the misrepresentation.

> It might lead to an inference to that effect, but it's not indisputable proof.

Again we're back to the lack of evidence not implying innocence if the supposed crime wasn't adequately investigated. That's what an investigation is for, to find and assemble evidence for a suspected crime.

Its a common belief that no serious effort to incriminate top bankers was initiated. To me it is beyond argument at this point. Do you still believe that is a questionable supposition?

[1] http://bochettoandlentz.com/criminal-fraud-vs-civil-fraud-wh...