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by harbie 3039 days ago
Reposting from the other thread about the study.

>"We excluded quasi-randomised trials and trials that were incomplete or included 20% or more of participants with bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, or treatment-resistant depression."

Wikipedia defines treatment resistant depression as "cases of major depressive disorder that do not respond adequately to appropriate courses of at least two antidepressants."

Maybe I'm unfamiliar with study methodology, but doesn't this undermine the study's conclusion? It's essentially stating that forms of deppresesion that respond well to antidepressants respond well to antidepressants.

1 comments

Please don't repost across threads. It makes merging them much more of a pain. If there are two discussions going on about the same thing, you're welcome to let us know at hn@ycombinator.com.