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by Nnuie21
3047 days ago
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To everyone saying these answers are bad because they don't delve into the history, equal temperament, and how D# and Eb weren't always harmonically equivalent: You're answering the wrong question. Yes, the question was "why are there sharps and flats" but read the rest of the question and it becomes clear, he/she isn't looking for the origin of sharps and flats. They are asking why it's practical to have both sharps and flats. The answer is: Because it's easier to write in F if you call them "A and Bb" rather than "A and A#" |
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You, and the top SO answer, give the correct reason why. And it's not just for writing, but reading also.
The diatonic scale, combined with the staff of lines and spaces, necessitates both flats and sharps.