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by rendall 3050 days ago
The question of his identity has been settled.

"In 1601, after his father’s death, Shakespeare the upstart returned to the college of arms to renew the family application for a coat of arms. He had made a small fortune in the theatre, and was buying property in and around Stratford. Now he set out to consolidate his reputation as a “Gentleman”. Under the rules that governed life at the court of Elizabeth I, only the Queen’s heralds could grant this wish.

"It’s at this point in the story that Wolfe discovered “the smoking gun”. In the Brooke-Dethick feud, it becomes clear that “Shakespeare, Gent. from Stratford” and “Shakespeare the Player” are the same man. In other words, “the man from Stratford” is indeed the playwright. Crucially, in the long-running “authorship” debate, this has been a fiercely contested point. But Wolfe’s research nails any lingering ambiguity in which the Shakespeare deniers can take refuge."

https://www.theguardian.com/culture/2017/jan/08/sherlock-hol...

2 comments

But there are plays with Shakespeare's name on them published during Shakespeare's lifetime for which Stratfordian scholars deny authenticity (Bad Quarto of Hamlet, etc.) Showing that the gentleman from Stratford and the Shakespeare of the theater company were the same person, falsifies some alternative theories, but certainly not all - so "settled" and nailing "any lingering ambiguity" are exaggerations.
You are confusing Shakespeare the author of the plays with Shakespeare the actor and producer and theatre manager. No one I believe disputes the latter.
Shakespeare the author of the plays is one and the same with the actor and producer and theater manager, per the article.