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by akvadrako 3066 days ago
There is lots of mathematical evidence that every quantum state maps 1-to-1 on a physical state¹, or at least be uniquely determined by the physical state². The main assumption both make is that there is some physical state.

So it doesn't really matter if it's a map or not - it tells you something about the territory.

[1] The completeness of quantum theory for predicting measurement outcomes, https://arxiv.org/abs/1208.4123

[2] On the reality of the quantum state, https://arxiv.org/abs/1111.3328v3

1 comments

> The main assumption both make is that there is some physical state.

I'd phrase this as: the main assumption is that reality is literally encoded by some sort of objective hidden variables theory.

I'm not sure what your point is, but it doesn't have to be hidden and in this case, objective just means two parties agree on the outcomes of experiments.