Not explicitly, they might have been just using US data as an example in this blog post.
Even if they aren't, I still wonder that if they're checking everyones IP addresses against that database, essentially sharing our access of SO with a third-party, would it still be an inappropriate use of personally identifiable information?
Even if they aren't, I still wonder that if they're checking everyones IP addresses against that database, essentially sharing our access of SO with a third-party, would it still be an inappropriate use of personally identifiable information?