[EgoIncarnate]

The original statement was "Never attribute to stupidity alone that which is adequately explained by both stupidity and malice."

It seems to me that both are adequate explanations. One explanation requires one factor (stupidity), and the other two factors (stupidity and malice). The one factor explanation would seem to be the simpler of the two explanations.

It seems to me the original statement reverses the logic of Occam's razor by preferring the more complex example. I think my point still stands. The original statement makes as much sense as trying to reverse Occam's razor.