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by dvanduzer
3113 days ago
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> Not relevant. The intent is to kill people either way. Exactly, when there was always intent to harm, it is easy to see how speech causes harm. > The difference is the cause of injury. Does the speech itself produce the injury or does it manifest derivative responses that are injurious, such as a fist punch? You are contradicting yourself. The word "FIRE" isn't causing direct injury, it manifests derivative responses that involve people getting hurt. > Mill's writing absolutely disagrees with this. Read chapter 4. He provides specific examples. Okay, I re-read chapter 4. None of the examples justify this reading. Mill is far more focused on private behavior than public speech in that chapter. He thinks polygamy is bad because it subjugates women, but at the time Mormons literally fled the country to the Utah desert, so he has a hard time justifying why an American would call for interference with the ostensibly consensual polygamy of the early Mormon Church. Nowhere does Mill suggest that speech can't cause harm. |
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