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by eru
3121 days ago
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Are you sure that the assumptions that your proof relies on are more fundamental than than what you are trying to prove? (Eg if memory serves right, you might use the property you are trying to prove to justify why you can even divide by non-zero x on both sides.) |
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Yes, at least to the extent that "fundamental-ness" can be defined. It is a well, and probably universally, established convention that the field axioms allowing division by non-0 elements (that is to say, allowing multiplication by arbitrary elements, and multiplicative inversion of non-0 elements) is taken as part of the definition of a field, and the fact that the set of non-0 elements in a field is closed under multiplication as a theorem about fields.