[Natanael_L]

This may be completely off the mark, but it's worth asking;

If the FCC repeals net neutrality, and if the FCC blocks state level net neutrality laws, and if a state / municipality has a de facto monopoly contract with one ISP, and finally, if that ISP engages in filtering / blocking / throttling content...

Then wouldn't that imply a first amendment violation, in that the state sanctions (via contract) treating protected speech in violation of the first amendment rights?

Because the people involved are trying to engage in protected speech which is hindered by state laws?