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by seanmcdirmid
3119 days ago
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Ridiculous, how would that even work? Profit is “sales - expenses.” So how would Apple account for the R&D in the states, or does Apple France just want to tax them assuming all the inputs don’t exist? That’s why Apple USA sells iPhones to Apple France at some price above hardware production costs. It doesn’t make sense any other way. Value isn’t created on sale, it is only realized as money at that point. |
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See this Forbes' article on transfer pricing as tax avoidance:
https://www.forbes.com/2010/06/24/tax-finance-multinational-...