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by SeckinJohn 3140 days ago
Then the government taking a criminal's drug money would also be theft? Also, he took it from a government wallet, not directly from a criminal.

Edit: Just to clarify, I was just pointing out that the comment I replied to is tangential(1- he didn't steal from a criminal. 2- 'someone' can 'seize' a criminal's money without it being theft.).

He obviously stole -this isn't even a case of trying to steal; he stole, and got caught- and I don't get how he can get away with such a small punishment for stealing $10M+.

3 comments

No. I mean, "theft" means "we made a law making it theft". By definition, government seizures are not theft.
I don't have a dog in this fight but surely neither the government nor anyone else gets to define what ordinary English words mean.
Of course they do. What do you call: "Taking a person's life with your own hands?"

- For a white westerner: Crime, Murder, etc

- For the government/military: war, being a hero, etc

- For "brown" people in the wrong countries: Terrorism

If one of the agents pockets the criminal's drug money, then yes, its theft.
Depends on your definition of theft. Some people consider taxation a theft.