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by indubitable
3160 days ago
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What is your logic for thinking this is even possibly the case? Consider something. Let's use Trump as an example, since the discussion of 'why aren't they releasing stuff on [the other side]' is generally connected to him. Imagine somebody had a treasure trove of leaked and compromising information on Trump. And they then submitted this information to Wikileaks. As the weeks and months passed by, it became clear to them that Wikileaks was not going to publish this information. Do you think they would not submit this to other media outlets? US media outlets would do absolutely anything for this sort of information. I'm curious to see where my logic may be failing me. |
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Other outlets are accepted [by general public] to have already been compromised wrt bias.
Up until the Trump campaign - Wikileaks was considered to be an unbiased leak of private and/or confidential information.
The name "Wiki" even intentionally evokes the name Wikipedia, the (slightly biased) generalist source of information that appears at the top of many of our search results.
In many cases, Wikileaks is actually worse. Seeing MSNBC or Fox News flash on the screen, we know the bias put forth by the company. We don't know Assange's bias. Correction, we do now.
To be honest, I'm curious to see how your logic even equated Wikileaks to other media outlets in the first place.