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by hobbyjogger
3172 days ago
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> The problem is that there is a financial incentive for someone else who is not working with them to buy up the stock, immediately resell it with the normal guarantees (that they will pass on dividends, allow voting by proxy etc.), but not pass on such re-sell information to the exchange/company. Does the exchange/company have some sort of a right to prevent resale unless tenure information is tracked? Yes, absolutely. That same financial incentive already exists in all sorts of variations. As a result, brokers (i.e. your hypothetical entity that gobbles up all the shares and then loans them or sells economic/voting rights) must be registered with FINRA and are subject to very extensive regulations, including rules from FINRA, the SEC and the public exchanges. For an example, look at how long and complicated the NYSE rules are, mostly involving member organizations like brokers (click on "Operation of Member Organizations" or any of the other subheadings at the link below and then see, for example, rule 402): > .30 Securities Callable in Part.—Member organizations which have in their possession or under their control bonds or preferred stocks of issues which are callable in part, whether specifically set aside or otherwise, shall identify each such bond or preferred stock so that their records shall clearly show for whose account it is held, except in the case of [two limited exceptions] http://wallstreet.cch.com/NYSE/Rules/ |
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I still don't get it, length and complicatedness of rules notwithstanding. Why can't a holding company not subject to these regulations simply buy from the broker and then resell? Why can't I personally buy and hold a bunch of shares and then sell stakes to people in my office completely off the books? What if I only sell a partial stake (e.g, 90% of dividends and 40% of voting rights)? Repackaging/Securitization happens all the time and in a million forms; is every allowed form simply listed exhaustively in a broker contract somewhere?