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by 09bjb 3181 days ago
I don't think there's a firm consensus on the reasoning, but it's generally acknowledged that the Sch. 1 classification of the psychedelics was motivated to 1) quell their threat of cultural and political destabilization and 2) to keep hippies and blacks in check. The 60s were similar to Occupy Wall Street: there's major (valid) fear on the part of the establishment when a radically different movement picks up steam. Psychedelics were (rightly) considered a partial fuel to the new movement.

I also agree that the U.S. is much less of a monoculture now and people generally agree that others should be able to live, think, and believe whatever and however they want.

2 comments

>there's major (valid) fear on the part of the establishment when a radically different movement picks up steam

What do you mean by "valid" here? Do you mean they are afraid for society, or themselves?

As in, there was a legitimate possibility in the 60s or with OWS that the movement would pick up enough momentum to really shake things up, power-structure-wise.
Don't forget that the civil rights movement actually was shaking things up in the 60s. I suspect that influenced political decisions by magnifying perceived threats to the prevailing social order.
I agree, but we must remove all government social programs as well to make that dream come true. You can't have one group experimenting at the expense of another.