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by tkahn6
5809 days ago
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The main point I'm trying to make is that one _can_ memorize something and not understand what it means. And one can understand something without having memorized it verbatim. If you accept this, then it follows that memorization and understanding are orthogonal. One can memorize something and not understand it. One can understand something and not have it memorized. This is not a subjective claim. Memorizing may have helped you understand, but objectively (if you follow the previous logic), it's not a necessary component of understanding. and the individual in question has none to draw from and is merely extrapolating from off-the-cuff opinion I don't see how you can draw that conclusion. |
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Ergo, your teacher's assignment was stupid because you can go through the motions without actually taking advantage of the opportunity. QED.
By that measure, you might as well drop out.
Snark (and your painfully affected over-use of "orthogonal") aside, the two aren't orthogonal if memorization aids in understanding, and understanding aids in memorization, and both aid in long-term recollection.