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by lisper
3201 days ago
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> Sorry if I wasn't making myself clear You still aren't. > diagonalization is not self-contained/provided-up-front/fully-written-down or any of the other phrases I've tried to use to get my point across But it is. The fact that one of its inputs happens to be a function doesn't make it any less self-contined. > The point is that Cantor's proof isn't actually about the real numbers! It isn't just about the reals, but it is definitely about the reals. The claim is: there exist well-defined mathematical structures that cannot be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the naturals. The proof is constructive, with the reals as the canonical example. Cantor's proof is about the real numbers in the exact same sense that Turing's proof of the non-computability of the halting problem is about Turing machines. |
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> But it is.
No it's not. It's a function. That is exactly the opposite of what I mean by "self-contained" (and all of the various rephrasings of how I defined it).
> The fact that one of its inputs happens to be a function doesn't make it any less self-contined.
True, it doesn't become less self-contained, because it's already not self-contained because it has an input. A function whose input is a function is just as self-contained as one whose input is a natural; or whose input is a teapot: they're all, precisely, not "self-contained" as per my definition.
I can't think of any clearer way of stating it. Maybe you're getting derailed by this phrase because you're interpreting it in some way other than the various equivalent, precise definitions I have given over and over?