| > In my understanding what you are saying is, a country will tax profit on revenue generating from its own territory by its own tax rate. Say we have a hypothetical company that operates only in Sweden and Ireland, and has offices only in Ireland. It has a revenue of €10M and a profit of €1M. This company had €4M (40%) of it's revenue in Sweden (tax rate 22%) and 60% of the revenue in Ireland (tax rate 12.5%). How should this corporation be taxed? By proportion of revenue according to the normal tax rate in the country. So In Sweden: Tax 40% (the proportion of revenue) of the profit (€4M/10M) * €1M * 0.22 = €88k In Ireland : Tax 60% of the profit (€6M/10M) * €1M * 0.125 = €75k So the total tax went from €125k to €163k, because the corporation was forced to pay taxes where it made business, rather than on Ireland alone. Basically you just pretend that the corporation was in fact two corporations, where one €4M revenue corporation was in Sweden and the other was a €6M revenue corporation in Ireland. That's all. |
So lets assume €10M is the already inflated ammount to accommodate for Ireland/Sweden share. Then only (€3.12m, €5.25) was needed from (Sweden, Ireland) if taxes were zero. €3.12m + €5.25m = €8.37m. €163k (€10m - €8.37) went to Govts. Then consumption taxes would be (28.2%, 14.2%) for (Sweden, Ireland). Swedese are paying (.282-.142)/(1+.142) = 16.3% more than Irish for same product.
You can calculate all these from equation in my comment before. I write here again,
R'(1-T) = R
whereas T is tax rates. R' is inflated revenue. R is zerotax revenue.