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by ColinWright
3201 days ago
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So I asked: is it possible to have m:N -> F such that for every f in F, there is an n in N such that m(n)=f? Your reply says yes, but then your construction does not do it. In particular you said: > The infinite string of zeros and ones is then prepended with a 1 and interpreted as a transfinite natural number in binary notation. But the set N does not have transfinite natural numbers, so q does not map F to N, it maps F to something else. So I ask again, is it possible to have m:N -> F, such that for every f in F, there is an n in N such that m(n)=f? |
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How many natural numbers are there? How many bits does it take to represent the average natural number? If you believe the natural numbers do not include transfinite numbers then how do you pick a successor when counting? There are infinite picks to be made so some of the picks must be transfinite. What I am calling a transfinite natural number must exist in N because N is an infinite set.
Assume that N has only finite numbers in it but is itself an infinite set. Would you care to tell me which number (or numbers) are listed twice? But then it is not really a set!