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by Sniffnoy
3220 days ago
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I think you're basically making a bucketing error here. As Scott Alexander points out, the exact same things he wanted to do were already being widely done elsewhere to no ill effect with no such worrying about consent. Why then does it make sense to group it under "research" together with the Tuskegee syphilis experiment and conclude things about it from that experiment, when the two have nothing in common except being research? I think that's a mistake of inference. Like, why should we conclude that we need that sort of consent to administer a questionnaire for experimental purposes (i.e.: gaining generally useful knowledge), but that there are no substantial issues of consent when it’s for diagnostic purposes (i.e.: gaining information about that particular patient) instead? Wouldn't it make more sense to group this case with the case with similar risk profile but a different purpose, rather than a related purpose but an entirely different risk profile? Something being research isn't what causes problems. |
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A patient consenting to being treated doesn't mean they'd consent for that personal information to be used for any other purpose.