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by FussyZeus 3222 days ago
Point of order: The right to own slaves was just the right to own property, the slaves were just declassified as property. There are very few instances where rights have changed based on how you describe, because the societal inertia is incredibly hard to overcome. That being said, I do agree with everything you're saying.
1 comments

Fair point. Then instead maybe it makes more sense to consider the inverse: the refusal to grant the right of autonomy to certain people.

You also bring up a good point that there are currently few instances where this has occurred, but that's sort of my point, that past standards are not always applicable to the future.