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by DougBTX 3224 days ago
That answer only addresses the "copyright license", others argue that plain BSD is a "license to use".

If BSD is a "license to use", then it is implicitly a copyright license _and_ a patent licence.

Assuming the above, the argument goes that the implicit patent license in plain BSD is overridden by the explicit patent license in BSD+Patents, and that the explicit one is much more restrictive than the (unwritten) implicit one.

The FAQ doesn't address that.

1 comments

From what I understand, React isn't under patent, so what patents would be 'implicitly licensed'?