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by DougBTX
3224 days ago
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That answer only addresses the "copyright license", others argue that plain BSD is a "license to use". If BSD is a "license to use", then it is implicitly a copyright license _and_ a patent licence. Assuming the above, the argument goes that the implicit patent license in plain BSD is overridden by the explicit patent license in BSD+Patents, and that the explicit one is much more restrictive than the (unwritten) implicit one. The FAQ doesn't address that. |
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