If the first segment won't pay for anything, and 50% of Google's mobile revenue comes from iOS products, that implies that the second and third segments must be of roughly equal size?
It's even more dramatic than that. Google make money on advertising, not direct sales, so what you're saying is "the (usage * advertiser desirability) from the entirety of group 2 is roughly equal to groups 1 and 3 combined".
Given group 1 is many times bigger than group 2, that's a very strong statement, but it's borne out in all the data I've ever seen, both public and private.
Given group 1 is many times bigger than group 2, that's a very strong statement, but it's borne out in all the data I've ever seen, both public and private.