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by rothbardrand 3246 days ago
The money laundering statutes are so broad that you are a felon under them if you take money out of your savings and put it in your checking in order to make your credit card payment one month. Even if all three are at the same bank and none of the money is the result of a criminal activity.
1 comments

Citation?
I highly doubt that scenario exists without some other incriminating action, behavior, or police observation.

Civil Asset Forfeiture is an attack on private property and the legal principle of "innocent until proven guilty", but there has to be _some_ suspicion of a crime (usually alleged drug paraphernalia) or simple corruption on the part of the police and/or judges.

There is a money-laundering-related charge, IIRC called "structuring", in which the reporting threshold of $10k/day/person is intentionally avoided (eg. by $9,999 transactions on consecutive days). This isn't usually charged "out of the blue". In the recent Hastert structuring case[1], he told a bank employee that he was avoiding the reporting threshold even though his money transfers weren't actually money laundering after profiting from a crime.

There is a lot that I disdain about money laundering laws and civil asset forfeiture, but I'm not inclined to believe that "rothbard-rand" (the surnames of two famous Libertarians) has no dogs in this fight, so to speak.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dennis_Hastert#Indictment