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by mulmen
3250 days ago
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Three strikes applies to both violent and non-violent felonies and the example earlier in the thread is for petty theft. Do you consider those crimes to be equal? Are all felonies equal? Why does sentencing vary but strikes do not? Why is there a "suite of punishments" for these felonies but only one number of strikes? I never said the concept of strikes is wrong or even that three is the wrong number. I asked why the value is fixed across different crimes because it seems arbitrary. I have yet to see any evidence to the contrary. My question stands, why three instead of some other number? Do you have a reason for three strikes other than "because that's what we always did" or "baseball"? If those are the only reasons then I think we need to rethink this practice. |
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