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by faragon
3264 days ago
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It was a common practice in Spain until the XIX th century. E.g. Miguel de Cervantes y Saavedra (1547-1616), the author of the book "Don Quixote" used the same pattern (in modern texts is often referenced without the "y", as Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra). Literally, it means Miguel "from" (as "son of") Cervantes (father first surname) "and" Saavedra (mother first surname). Currently that form is in disuse, so if being born nowdays it would be just José Ortega Gasset, although people could formally/informally use "José Ortega y Gasset", "José de Ortega y Gasset", or even "José Ortega i Gasset" (in case of being written in texts in Catalan, instead of Spanish, a form that is still in use in some Spanish regions having the Catalan/Valencian in addition to the Spanish). |
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