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by jt2190
3273 days ago
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From the same wikipedia article: > English common law before the reign of Charles II permitted a man to give his wife "moderate correction", but no "rule of thumb" (whether called by this name or not) has ever been the law in England.[2][8][d] In other words, beating of wives was historically an acceptable practice under English Common law, notwithstanding my mistakenly using a debunked anecdote. Thank you for "moderately correcting" me. (edit: And to further the original point that historically English Common law allowed for wife-beating, from wikipedia: > Prior to the mid-1800s, most legal systems viewed wife beating as a valid exercise of a husband's authority over his wife. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence#History) |
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You're assuming "moderate correction" means wife beating. In fact, if you look at the source Wikipedia cites for that phrase, it says:
>Such corrections specifically excluded beatings in favor of temporarily confining the wife to the household (like making a child sit in the corner). In fact, no British law, Common or Parliamentary, ever permitted wife beating under any circumstances.