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by glangdale
3283 days ago
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I get the theory behind that quiz 'trick question', but does it make any actual legal sense? If the discrimination against a subset happens because of the component of the subset that's protected, then surely it's an attack on a protected category. So if you say "black children are all stupid" the likely implication is that you're saying "unlike white children" (otherwise why would you include black). Is this even true legally? Could a school discriminate against black children because, hey, they are children? Or a movie theater: "Let's not offer youth discounts to Latinos". I am not a lawyer, so I don't know the legalistic view, but it seems to be an absurdity. |
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Of course, this situation changes in any such case as new legislation is made to address perceived or actual need, but that hasn't really happened yet here. The same is not true of, say, refusing trade to members of a specific ethnic group because of that ethnicity - a case in which laws of the sort I describe have indeed been made.
(And, to be clear, I have serious qualms with pretty much every facet of the way in which Facebook does business, from its content moderation choices, to the fashion in which it monetizes its userbase, to the extent to which the scale of userbase it's deliberately developed - in support of that questionable style of monetization - might make "voluntary" an inaccurate way to describe the choice people have of whether or not to participate there. My description above is not normative, but positive, and should be regarded as such.)