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by credit_guy
3327 days ago
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That basic premise seems flawed to me for two reasons. First is that r is like a first deriative (of the asset value) and g as a second derivative (gdp being the first derivative of the total assets of a country, while gdp growth the seocnd), so they are not direcly copareable. The second is that r is very directly measurable, while the gdp and gdp growth have huge uncertainties and inconsistencies. Here's an example: the GDP of Bulgaria. In 1996 it was about $10BN, and in 2016 about $50BN. It grew in 20 years by 5, which means an annualized rate of 8.4%. However if you look at the historical gdp growth then the average for the last 20 years is about 1% (see [1] and [2]). Why the disconnect? I don't know, but if someone tells me that r>g because g is 1%, I take that with a grain of salt. [1] http://www.tradingeconomics.com/bulgaria/gdp
[2] http://www.tradingeconomics.com/bulgaria/gdp-growth |
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Take a look at your numbers again. You have made multiple mistakes. Your 8.4% annualized rate is wrong - You can't just take the start and end points to calculate an average. Plus, you are plugging quarterly data into yearly calculations.