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by bjourne
3359 days ago
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Here is how you do it. Have a function p(r) which evaluates to the previous real number. Then your mapping function is: f(r) = if (r == 0) { 0 } { else f(p(r)) + 1 }
If your objection is "You can't determine what the previous real number is." Then my counter-objection is "Please prove that you can't." Which I don't think is possible without first assuming reals are uncountable. |
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Given real number r, assume there exists a real number q such that q < r and there does not exist a real number x such that q < x < r. Let real number y = (q + r) / 2. It is trivial to show that q < y < r. Therefore we have a contradiction, and therefore there does not exist a real number q that meets our conditions for a "previous real number".
If you take issue with this, then I suggest you read up on the standard construction of the number systems from the naturals up to the reals. This is all very rigorously defined in terms of ZFC set theory.