[hzhou321]

Why a pre-definable function matters here? We have allowed a real number (that cannot be exhaustively described) in, so why a real function (that you cannot exhaustively define) has to be excluded? Isn't it unfair that I am only allowed to use a finitely definable function while you can choose a non-pre-finitely-describable real number? Isn't that a loop proof -- that the set of real numbers is uncountable simply because it is defined to be uncountable, and it is larger infinity than that of natural numbers simply it is defined to be bigger (as what bigger means in the context of infinity is otherwise undefined).

[zeeboo]

You don't have to use a finitely definable function. In fact, Cantor's argument defines the function as an infinite list of real numbers.