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by mannykannot 3358 days ago
"So, in Borel’s view, most reals, with probability one, are mathematical fantasies, because there is no way to specify them uniquely."

If that were so, might it not offer a way to an "explanation" for the Banach-Tarski paradox that even the likes of I could imagine I understood? - that duplicate volume you constructed is made from the same reals, specified differently!

Not that that would be an argument for the proposition quoted.

I was going to say that I am not a mathematician, but that would be redundant.

1 comments

Banach-Tarski isn't a paradox. It's just what happens when you build geometric "shapes" out of nonmeasurable sets. In actual, real-world geometry, we almost always assume the set of points inside the shape/construction we care about is measurable, and that any geometric operations we perform must preserve measure.
Thanks - I have seen it mentioned in many places (often with "paradox" appended, e.g. [1]), but never with such a succinct commentary as you have given here.

[1] http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Banach-TarskiParadox.html