Was coffee being used roughly the same way it's used today at Starbucks or whatever, or was it used closer to the way that the Sufis used it? The article doesn't really make any sense without this context.
I'd say much closer to Starbucks in that it was bought and sold at a place of business, and consumed in a secular context. One important difference is that many coffeehouse goers on the 17th century appear to have been drinking alcohol as well, which helps explain why things were so much more raucous.