Y
Hacker News
new
|
ask
|
show
|
jobs
by
acchow
3382 days ago
1 -> 0 = 0
What does this mean? Is the 0 after the equals the antecedent? Consequent?
1 comments
pmcjones
3382 days ago
(1 -> 0) = 0.
In other words, (true implies false) is false.
link
acchow
3381 days ago
"is false" doesn't mean anything in Godel's system. That's too high level and imprecise. We're dealing with only symbol manipulation here. We only have provability (which really is "there exists a derivation for") - we don't have "truth".
link
In other words, (true implies false) is false.