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by DannyBee
3384 days ago
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"Clearly, it doesn't follow the 'intent' of the parties." And who is deciding what that intent?
Right now, the mob, so the parent is right :) Your analogies to courts defeats the entire argument against that. Courts were, in fact, set up as deciders of that thing called "law". If code is law, so to speak, you don't need them. There is no intent. |
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Considering we can decide to abolish the constitution in America (or in any country) any time, does that mean we don't have a constitutional republic in America? Technically we can never say that we have a system X which is not Mob rule because the mob can always abolish it.
Literally speaking, there is no such thing as 'code is law' because in your definition there is no such thing as law, because anything which can be modified by the mob is not law and everything can be modified or abolished by the mob.