[djaychela]

I have a terrible maths background, so that's -way- above me.

However, I have a good grasp of why instruments sound like they do, so I'm hoping that your statement is a complex way (no pun intended) of showing that the waveform has many harmonics, and that those harmonics vary over time? Not looking for any kind of argument, just hoping for a bit of explanation of the above; From what I've learned over the years it's the balance of harmonics and the way that they change over time that gives an instrument its timbre and explains the difference in tone between instruments despite them playing nominally the same note (i.e. fundamental at the same frequency).