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by ww520 3400 days ago
It's in different context. Reusing a keyword or an operator in different context happens all the time in languages.
1 comments
kbenson 3400 days ago
Is it that different? Assuming you would use '?' and ':', presumable we might see both the following then:

    let foo = foo()?;
    let bar = bar() ? this() : that();
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ww520 3400 days ago
? already has different forms as of now. You can do foo()?; or foo()?.bar(). People don't seem to be confused.

expr ? expr : expr is just another form. The ternary form is so well known that I doubt people have problem recognizing it.

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Rusky 3400 days ago
The usage of ? in foo()?.bar() is no different from its usage in foo()?; ...
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__david__ 3400 days ago
Are those really 2 different forms? I was under the impression that these were the same:

    foo()?.bar()
    (foo()?).bar()
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