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by mcfrank
3405 days ago
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Original researcher here. For context, people are not arguing that nothing is learned, but instead that children come innately prepared with abstract categories of "noun" and "determiner" even if they don't know which words are nouns or determiners or even exactly how these categories are combined. Here's a paper that makes this argument: http://www.ling.upenn.edu/~ycharles/PNAS-2013-final.pdf |
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I'll take a look at the paper you linked, but I'm also curious, how does your technique make a distinction between rule-based grammar being fully learned vs mostly or partially learned? That is, how can you say that improved grammar over time is evidence against innate ability to understand/use grammar? It seems we have an innate ability to walk in that we seem to be "wired for it", but we are still terrible at it for a bit over a year on average. The fact that we get noticeably better over time doesn't seem to rule out innate ability. This of course assumes "innate ability" doesn't mean "completely unlearned".