[roghee0I]

Historically, the percentage of men changed drastically in the teaching profession. Did A) men as a class suddenly and for no discernible reason became less qualified than women, or B), some other force discriminated against men, or C), men have a innate biological reason to dislike or like teaching?

And we can find drastically changes in gender distribution (and gender segregation) in multiple professions. Is those three choices, A, B, or C, the only possible reason for those? Data from Sweden say over 85% of women and 85% of men work in professions which has serious problem of gender segregation, a problem which only got worse in the last 100 years. Which of those tree choices explains why 1917 had less gender segregation in the work place than 2017?

[JoeAltmaier]

Or D) socially it becomes less status-full for men to work in those professions.

[shaiC7va]

Can we explain the drastic change of lower percentage of women because its less status-full for them now than before?

And what happened since 1917 to 80% of the profession in the job market to cause half the population to suddenly get less status from being employed there?

(same account as roghee0I)

[flukus]

The teaching one is interesting actually, it's almost totally explained by ending the requirement for women to retire from teaching when they marry.