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by michrassena
3424 days ago
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What I wonder is why one would assume the python command would run python 2, instead of running python 1, assuming python 1 was a thing. By your logic, shouldn't python2, run python3 run python 3, etc. What I'm getting at, is we get used to things being a certain way, but often we're just following a convention that was set in place before we got onboard. Why do we still type "bash" instead of "bash4"? |
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The reason we don't need a 'bash4' is that, by and large, bash tried very hard to make sure they didn't break any bash3 scripts, so there is no need for old bash3 scripts to know they are now running in bash4, unlike python3.