[ars]

> Isn't that the anti definition of net neutrality?

No because it's their own service. The definition would be for someone else's service.

Let's pretend this is comcast and they are sending cable TV over the same wire as internet data. (Which they do.) Does that violate Net Neutrality?

If not (and I think most people would say not), what's the difference?

The bare fact that you can argue if there is or isn't a difference already tells you this isn't a clear Net Neutrality case.

[giarc]

I think you're incorrect, but happy to hear arguments against.

The phrase I quoted says that the big companies allow you to use their service free of any caps, but if you want to use a 3rd parites same service you are going to be capped. Therefore it's not neutral. The 3rd parties can pay to have cap removed, which puts it into the non-neutral territory.