[trump2016]

> The marriage of reason was not, in hindsight, reasonable at all; it was often expedient, narrow-minded, snobbish and exploitative.

Is this actually true? I've heard it repeated over and over again, but is there any real evidence that a larger percentage people in "marriages of reason" felt dissatisfied when compared to marriages today? Considering the 50% divorce rate I'd be extremely surprised if the dissatisfaction rate of matches made in days gone by was much higher.

[mratzloff]

There is no 50% divorce rate, but it used to approach that 40 years ago.

http://mobile.nytimes.com/2014/12/02/upshot/the-divorce-surg...

[vinay427]

Divorce rate isn't a great indicator of dissatisfaction rate due to the varying social acceptance of divorce as a result of dissatisfaction.