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by mikeash
3506 days ago
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Yes, which is why violating a known law isn't automatically disqualifying. But it is highly suggestive, and requires extremely good evidence to surmount. So far, such evidence has not been forthcoming, so this remains a good reason to doubt. Every so often, something comes along that overturns an established law, like the photoelectric effect or the Michelson–Morley experiment. But the vast majority of the time, the laws remain intact and it's the claim which is somehow flawed. (See the Pioneer anomaly for a recent example where new physics was long considered as a potential explanation, but it ended up being a completely mundane effect.) |
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I totally agree it requires drastic evidence, but it could be explained by another physical action not necessarily the violation of Newton's laws or effects that supersede those laws like quantum effects
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0B7kgKijo-p0idV9tcmVIVzZrdTQ...
http://www.ibtimes.co.uk/emdrive-exclusive-roger-shawyer-con...
http://www.slideshare.net/KurtZeller/investigation-of-a-part...