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by adrianratnapala 3498 days ago
It's not the factorial either, that would include composites in the product too.
2 comments

Euclid didn't use the factorial in his original proof, but it still produces a logically correct argument and it has fewer syllables. Metri causa. :-)
Using the factorial is better, I think, even if ahistorical; it avoids the slight unpleasantness of having to show that every non-unit integer is divisible by a prime.