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by dota 3501 days ago
Can someone shed some light on why we should care about the non-dictatorship requirement in Arrow's theorem? Reading the non-dictatorship section on the Stanford encyclopedia of philosophy makes it sound like it's a meaningless assumption. http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/arrows-theorem/#NonDic If someone's preferences always aligning with society's preferences results in them being a "dictator", so what?
1 comments

Exactly. This is why Arrow's theorem has no applicability to practical use of voting systems in the real world. The dictatorship property is often misinterpreted.