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by lomnakkus
3523 days ago
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Wait, what? In my, admittedly maybe lacking, understanding amortization doesn't really work that way. "Amortized worst case" (for example) means that you can still bound the worst case[1], but it's just not necessarily going to be a very accurate bound. Obviously, amortized complexity doesn't tell you "<X ms" right off the bat since it deals in abstract "operations", but if you have known worst case bounds for all the "operations", then an amortized bound for a given operation will give you something equivalent to "<X ms". [1] I mean, it's a common proof technique to actually have a non-negative cost function (+ invariant) and postulate/derive an upper bound on that, so... what gives? What's your reasoning here? |
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